Well, knowing basically nothing about Europe at that time, my first instinct is to not take him seriously there. "If we approach a certain threshold on economic factor X, then we will suffer from the sociopolitical effect Y as we can see from example Z, even though it was in a completely different historical context and I'm simplifying anyway."
I mean, there are all sorts of reasons to believe that increased wealth means increased political access/influence/power to one degree or another, but I'm not a fan of "it's just like that one other time!" stories.
Also, he was maybe referring to the wealth and influence of industrialists and bankers around that time, which would have been a shift from the traditional landed gentry? Again, I know shit about Europe around then, so whatevs.